The L.A. Times reports:

Santa Monica’s Hotel Shangri-La and its owner discriminated against members of a Jewish organization two years ago when staff and security guards ordered the group to halt a poolside event, a jury determined Wednesday....

Members of the Friends of the Israel Defense Forces had gathered at the Art Deco hotel on the afternoon of July 11, 2010, and, shortly after their party got underway, were told to remove their literature and banners, get out of the pool and hot tub, and stop handing out T-shirts, according to court documents and testimony.

The employees said they were following the orders of hotel owner Tehmina Adaya, a Muslim woman of Pakistani descent....

[T]he jury heard deposition testimony of a former employee, Nathan Codrey, who said Adaya repeatedly used profanity as she insisted that the event stop.

“If my [family finds] out there’s a Jewish event here, they’re going to pull money from me immediately,” Adaya said, according to Codrey’s testimony, which was read by a stand-in because Codrey was out of state and could not be subpoenaed.

Adaya emphatically denied she had ordered the group to halt the event for fear that her family would cut off her financing....

The jury awarded $1.2 million in compensatory damages under the state public accommodations antidiscrimination law (the Unruh Civil Rights Act), plus $400,000 in punitive damages, according to the New York Times. I assume that the high damages award — rare in public accommodations cases — stems from the number of people who are affected.

It seems to me that business owners should have a right to decide which events to allow on their property. If a Pakistani Muslim (or anyone else) doesn’t want pro-Israeli-military events on her property, or if a Pole (or anyone else) doesn’t want pro-Soviet-Army events on his property, or if people don’t want to host pro- or anti-Scientology events or pro- or anti-Catholic events or pro- or anti-Muslim events, they should be free to do so. Public accommodation law in many places does ban discrimination against people based on race, religion, national origin, sex, and some other attributes; but it seems to me that property owners should be free to discriminate based on the message that an event is spreading, regardless of whether the message is tied to particular religious, racial, or ethnic groups. Under current law, bans on such private property owner discrimination based on a speaker’s message are likely constitutional (see PruneYard Shopping Center v. Robins and Rumsfeld v. FAIR); I just think they’re an unsound idea.

Naturally, if the deal has been made with event organizers, the hotel owners can’t then go back on the deal, but that should be a matter of normal breach of contract law, and not of antidiscrimination law (which would apply even if no deal had yet been made). One can debate whether private property owners should be free to discriminate even based on race, religion, and the like in choosing whom to let onto their property. But even if sufficiently pressing reasons justify such restrictions on property rights when it comes to discrimination based on people’s attributes, property owners should be free to discriminate based on what people are proposing to say on their property.

Interestingly, California is one of the few jurisdictions that seems to me to violate this principle, and to actually require property owners to allow speech on their property that they would rather exclude. That’s partly true because of cases such as the California Supreme Court decision in Robins v. Pruneyard Shopping Center, which required large shopping center owners — but basically just large shopping center owners, and not other property owners — to allow speakers on their property without regard to the content of their speech. (Coincidentally, Pruneyard also involved pro-Israel speakers.)

But it’s also partly true because California courts have interpreted the Unruh Civil Rights Act, which on its face seems to bar only discrimination based on race, religion, national origin, sex, and a few other attributes, as barring many other forms of discrimination, including based on occupation and other factors. And the ACLU used the law to sue a German restaurant owner who kicked out four diners wearing Nazi lapel pins — a claim that is potentially plausible under this broad interpretation of the statute. (The claim apparently never went to trial, apparently because the restaurant settled, though I’m not positive of that.)

In any case, based on press accounts it appears that all of this was largely ignored at trial, because the plaintiffs’ theory — which the jury accepted, based partly on Codrey’s testimony — was that the defendants ejected the event because its participants were Jewish, and not because of its political message. Still, this seemed like a good occasion to raise the matter.

UPDATE: I’ve added information about the punitive damages award to the post.

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Showing 79 of 83 comments

  • JohnKettlewell 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Alot of interesting views and history. The one idea I never see mentioned is a rollback of "necessary Laws" regarding patronage/accomodations. If you believe that the Laws were needed, and maybe you believe still are, would you not be willing to cede the POSSIBILITY that they are not now? Such as removing those Laws and observing the result. Government only seems to grow, never receding. If societal problems re-emerge, then so may too the Laws.

    If your argument is "equal rights", there is nothing more equal than choice...the action is the same, results may vary: C'est La Vie. 

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  • harryeagar 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    No. I faced down men with shotguns in the marches for equal accommodations.

    Don;t need to rethink or relive that experience, ever.

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  • chaboard 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I think the obvious intent of the raft of Voter ID laws passed lately even WITH the Voting Rights Act still in place makes it pretty clear that if it and similiar laws disappeared we'd be right back where we were....

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  • harryeagar 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I cannot prove it, but you and I know, professor, that the reason the family would have objected and punished her was based on religious/racial discrimination: A sort of secondary boycott and heckler's veto combined

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  • Brian T. Robinson 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    This reminds me of the original purpose of The Negro Motorist Green Book . . . .

    "The Open Road Wasn’t Quite Open to All
    "

    http://www.nytimes.com/2010/08... 

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  • Peter Gerdes 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    The problem with this rule is that there is no plausible way to separate speech from identity.

    For instance, what about the hotel owner who feels the sikh religion is harmful devil worship and resolves to throw out anyone who engages in expressive behavior showing respect or indicating approval of the Sikh religion.  Well now there is a problem.  (Most?) Sikhs feel a religious obligation to wear various items of apparel that indicate their religious affiliation but such apparel also clearly expresses respect for the Sikh faith.  So it would seem that being able to discriminate based on religious expression collapses into being able to discriminate against members in that religious group.

    I mean one could manage similar things with other religious groups.  Heck, you could even object to expressive behavior suggesting blacks and whites were equal and then kick out all black guests who failed to address the hotel staff as if talking to a superior.  In effect you have now created a white's only hotel.

    ---
    Yes, I do think this restricts free speech rights. 

    Ultimately, I think the right answer is that discrimination should only be illegal when there is a compelling governmental interest in making it illegal.  Thus, in contexts where discrimination is likely to be widespread and pervasive absent laws to the contrary then have such laws.  In situations where simple boycotts and consumer choice are sufficient to deal with the problem then eliminate the laws.

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  • Chris Tompkins 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I'm not going to express any opinion about the verdict, but $1.6 million for having your hotel party cut short is absurd.  It's a wonder anyone is willing to open a small or medium sized business in California and risk jury awards like that.

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  • Guest 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand
    Comment removed.
  • avalpert 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    Yay, you win the dumbest post on the thread award.

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  • John David Galt 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    The worst thing about laws mandating accommodation for everyone is that they don't really include everyone.  A friend of mine was railroaded and sent to jail in California for peacefully demonstrating across the street from the property of a religion he disagreed with.  Details at operatingthetan.com.

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  • pdxnag 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand


    I think that the government's level of
    intrusion could and should be treated differently based on whether
    the actor is an incorporated entity -- acting with statutory
    privileges -- versus an ordinary citizen engaged in gainful activity
    in a sole proprietorship. That is, can a citizen escape some
    intrusion by abandoning incorporation? I think of any statutory
    entity as more like a pubic entity than a private entity, here
    subject to the full panoply of restrictions on government
    discrimination.

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  • thirdeblue 5 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Come Hold Your Event At Honest Adolf's Discount Convention Center Today*

    *Except Jews, Fags, Negros, and Muslims.

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  • SherryLevine 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

     Actually, Adolf's most adored and best friend was a fag.

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  • avalpert 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    No, he wasn't. His paternal grandfather is unknown (his father was an illegitimate child) and there have been various rumors that he may have been Jewish - but none of them have ever been confirmed nor seemed likely (like one that originates from Hitler's lawyer who claims to have traced his grandfather to be a Jewish man in Graz which would have placed him there before Jews were allowed back into Graz).

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  • Steve 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    This is probably the ultimate example of the "some of my best friends are..." argument.

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  • PrometheeFeu 14 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I always find strange that religion is included as a person's attribute. People change their religion all the time during their lives. Religion is a matter of choice and behavior. Why it should be protected above other behaviors is beyond me.

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  • Ricardo117 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    To the extent that "people change their religion all the time," that is a very recent development from a historical perspective. For most people most of the time, religion has been intertwined with religious and national identity. The idea of a Hindu deciding not to be Hindu or a Jew deciding not to be Jewish would be a bit like a Greek deciding to be Finnish or a Japanese person deciding to be Egyptian.

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  • Even then people changed their religion.  Even ancient judiasm had conversion rituals in it.

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  • avalpert 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    People changed their nationality (and in effect their ethnicity) too - actually, that is what 'conversion' in ancient Judaism was for the most part.

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  • jselson 10 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I would imagine that this is 1) for rather clear historical reasons, and 2) because a person's religious beliefs are often some of his or her most cherished, important, and contemplated beliefs, and we as a society have decided that it is a general good for people to be allowed to freely hold, and perhaps proclaim, their most cherished beliefs, probably because we see such freedom as contributing to an, albeit abstract, idealized philosophical sense of what it means to be a fully-realized individual. If we didn't have such a religious protection, then many of us would feel as if our very souls - if one believes in such a thing, or at least feels like such a thing is within one's self - would be burdened, and I think that idea sounds intolerable to many people (again, given some awful historical data to back up that viewpoint). 

    Also, whether you think this important or not, I'm an atheist.

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    (Edited by author 6 days ago)

  • PrometheeFeu 9 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Oh, I do understand the historical reasons why things are as they are. However, I think they lack any principled substance. Your second argument sounds a lot better, but I'm still unconvinced. I can't see a principled reason to place the cut-off point at religion in such a case. To many people, their religion is something that they do on Friday/Saturday/Sunday and it doesn't affect their lives much beyond that.

    I am myself an atheistic-leaning agnostic which probably informs my thoughts on the matter. I've always wondered how difficult it would be to make such protections of religion break by claiming that a political ideology is a religion. My faith in libertarianism makes some fundies look like a bunch of doubting Thomas.

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  • Steve 8 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    You could choose to identify as a Christian tomorrow, if you wanted to.  But could you actually choose to be a Christian, in the sense of accepting Jesus as your savior, truly believing in the existence of the Biblical God, etc.?  I doubt it.

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  • PrometheeFeu 5 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I also could not bring myself to believing that 9/11 was an inside job, that Javascript isn't a gigantic hack that we should refactor out of browsers, that antibiotics help with viruses, or that Classical Keynesianism is a valid explanation of the business cycle. What is the principled difference between these two things. And please remember that given the vehemence of the 9/11 truther, it very much seems like it is a core belief. (Same thing for programming languages wars.)

    Anyways, what I was mostly referring to is actions. Given the absence of thought scanners, your inner belief that Jesus Christ is Lord and Savior is safe. Why can I not ban somebody from my hotel (hypothetically given that I have no hotel and don't intend on going in that business) for what they choose to do. In this case, those people chose to hand out t-shirts, pamphlets and what-not. Why can't I ban Scientologists on the grounds that I think they defraud people? Why can't I ban NAZIs on the grounds that I consider them evil incarnate? Sure, if you want to come to my hotel, you can think NAZI thoughts and be a secret NAZI. But, if I see a swastika, you better be a Hindu or you're out. You didn't have to break out the swastika armband. You chose to. You didn't have to wear your "Ask me about E-meters" t-shirt. You chose to. Ultimately, religious practice is a choice that you make as evidenced by the millions of people who might believe that Jesus Christ is the Lord and Savior but chose to stay in bed on Sunday because hey, God will understand...

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  • Steve 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I also have trouble understanding the definitional distinction between religious beliefs and other types of deeply held beliefs.  For example, in some states, I can decline to vaccinate my children if I believe God doesn't want me to do it, but I can't decline for other reasons that may be just as deeply held.  But I think you've changed the subject from whether religion is an issue of choice.  By the way, in some states and in some contexts we prohibit discrimination on the grounds of political affiliation, which is even more mutable than religion.  Take that one up with Chester A. Arthur if you like.

    The argument that a religious person has a choice to "pass" as a non-religious person sort of leaves me cold. Yes, sometimes you have a choice about whether to disclose or conceal your religion, but we don't want to make society one big mass of don't-ask-don't-tell. I shouldn't have to hide my Star of David to go into a shop.

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    (Edited by author 5 days ago)

  • jmatrixrenegade 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    There are non-theistic religions, so it wouldn't rise and fall on belief in God.

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  • SherryLevine 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

     Anyways, what I was mostly referring to is actions.
    Why can I not ban somebody from my hotel for what they choose to do?

    =========
    Exactly - like homosexual behavior.

    And like any behavior promoting a homosexuality agenda.

    It is chosen and people have a right not to have it in their own hotels/spaces.

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  • PrometheeFeu 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    Yes. I also won't go to such a hotel myself, but that's a different story.

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  • Steve 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I wouldn't.  But I still doubt it.

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  • Steve 12 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    This case illustrates the difficulty in distinguishing between discrimination against the person and discrimination against the message.  If you'll allow Jews on the premises to hold a bake sale, but you won't allow them to hold a pro-Israel event, that's not really evidence that you're only against the message rather than the person; it simply means you'll tolerate Jews as long as they don't get too Jewy.

    As we discussed a few days back, I'm very puzzled by EV's view that "hostile public accommodation environment" claims are unconstitutional for free speech reasons, and I'm even more puzzled now that he acknowledges that it's constitutional to ban public accommodations from discriminating on the basis of viewpoint.  After all, the hotel owner could certainly make a free speech argument here if she wanted to.

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  • David M. Nieporent 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    What would her free speech argument be?  It's the act of kicking the group out that she's being sued for, not for anti-Jewish speech.

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  • Leo Marvin 10 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Isn't there a meaningful difference between a public accommodation having a protected right to expression which arguably creates a hostile environment, and being prohibited from excluding others based on their viewpoint? (I didn't see the discussion you mention, so maybe I'm misunderstanding something?)

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    (Edited by author 6 days ago)

  • Steve 9 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    There's sort of a difference, but if you want to make it about free expression, on some level this hotel owner is being compelled to endorse the gathering's message.  Not expressly, of course, but along the same lines as the argument made by the wedding photographer who doesn't want to photograph the same-sex couple because she feels she's being forced to implicitly approve of their relationship.

    In the other case, my point was that a restaurant that excludes Jews is not a whole lot different from a restaurant that is decorated with swastikas and has waiters who deliver anti-semitic diatribes, to the point where no sensible Jew would ever want to eat there.

    Some of EV's bright lines don't seem so bright to me.  I'm just trying to get a handle on his thinking.

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  • David M. Nieporent 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    The difference between a place where you're not allowed to eat and a place where you wouldn't want to seems pretty non-trivial to me.

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  • David M. Nieporent 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    She's not being compelled to "endorse the gathering's message."  She's not being compelled to speak; she's being compelled to rent a space.  The difference between that and the wedding photographer is that the latter was being compelled to speak, and more specifically to speak a certain message.  (That gay weddings are good.*)  (Had the photographer refused to photograph the gay people's dog because the people who owned the dog were gay, it would be analogous, and EV wouldn’t be making a speech argument.  That would be discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation.)

    (*) Had the photographer agreed to take the pictures but deliberately taken pictures showing the wedding in a bad light, she'd certainly have been equally sued for discrimination.

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  • Leo Marvin 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I can't speak for EV. The sense to me is that some First Amendment rights yield to the compelling interest in making public accommodations available to protected classes, but not to making those accommodations congenial.  Obviously the boundary between what's congenial and what's minimally tolerable is hard to place, but isn't difficult line-drawing inevitable when we delimit Constitutional rights?

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  • Ken Arromdee 5 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    By this reasoning, a restaurant that excludes Orthodox Jews is not a whole lot different from a restaurant that serves non-Kosher food to the point where no sensible Orthodox Jew would ever want to eat there.

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  • Steve 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Well, if you think that's the same reasoning, I guess you can go with that argument.

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  • Ken Arromdee 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

     It's the same reasoning: the restaurant provides services that are not to a group's liking and that is equated with discriminating against the group.  Jews don't want to eat at a restaurant decorated with swastikas; Orthodox Jews don't want to eat at a restaurant that isn't kosher.  The main difference between those two examples is that serving food that is not kosher 1) is extremely common compared to swastika-themed service, and 2) is inoffensive.  As the argument doesn't depend on either the activity being common or on it causing offense, it applies to both examples.

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  • Ken Arromdee 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    What, deliberately doing it is what makes a difference?

    If I opened up a restaurant and, ignoring kosher food, I decided not to sell any bagels because I knew that bagels attract Jews to my shop and I want to keep the Jews out, am I then illegally discriminating?  Of course, not every Jew will refuse to eat there because I don't carry bagels, but then not every Jew will refuse to eat in a restaurant full of swastikas, either.

    Here's another example. I open a restaurant and I decide that since only 7% of black people are Republican, if I make my restaurant a Republican-themed restaurant, I can drive the blacks away. Is it now illegal to have a Republican-themed restaurant, if I'm so unwise as to state why I am theming it? What if I actually like black Republicans and I only want to keep out black Democrats, is intentionally driving them away (in the knowledge that it's going to have a disparate impact on blacks in general) illegal?

    What if I am aware that swastikas in a restaurant won't drive out all Jews, but only, say, all except 7%? Is that illegal?

    What if I decorate my restaurant with pictures of women voting and driving cars because I know it offends Saudis and there happen to be a few Saudis living nearby who I want to keep out of the restaurant?

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  • Steve 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    Not sure why you think those two things aren't part of the argument.  It's not like I chose some random example that just happened to be offensive.  Indeed, that's the entire point: you're not just being coincidentally expressive, you're being deliberately offensive in order to drive a certain class of people away.

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  • kidmugsy 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I'm just wondering why no employee thought to ask the boss in advance about "the Friends of the Israel Defense Forces".
    P.S. Why is it axiomatic that that is a "Jewish organization"?  In law, I mean.

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  • epluribus 31 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    A hotel holds itself open to the general public.  Of course, they can eject people who are creating a disturbance, but the jury believed these people were ejected because they were Jewish.  That might be acceptable in Riyadh or Baghdad; it should not be tolerated in Santa Monica.  Thank you Jesse Unruh.

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  • David Schwartz 30 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    The Hotel holds itself open to the general public because this is what the law, ever since Heart of Atlanta, says it must do. You can't have laws prohibiting a Hotel from having a "no Xs allowed" policy and then point out that the hotel holds itself open to the general public to argue that excluding Jews is a breach of its implied offer to all comers.

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    (Edited by author 6 days ago)

  • epluribus 13 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    No, a hotel holds itself open to the general public because that is what a hotel does.  It is not because the law requires it to do this.  It is an accomodation open to the general public.  Like a restaurant.  Like a public bus.  A private house is not the same thing as a hotel.  The owner of a private house issues invitations and may discriminate in whom he or she invites.  The operator of a hotel open to the public should not be permitted to do this.  If this Muslim woman doesn't want to invite Jews to her private house, she is not required to do so.  Operating a hotel open to the public she should not be permitted to exclude (or eject) Jews.  The Unruh Act says she can't.

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  • David Schwartz 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    So is a "whites only hotel" a contradiction in terms? Would such a thing be a metaphysical impossibility even if it was legal? What was the entity suing in Heart of Atlanta. It clearly wasn't a hotel. What was it?

    Proof by definition is silliness.

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  • PrometheeFeu 11 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    That's, pardon my french, BS. The definition of a hotel is that it provides a specific type of housing rentals. Nothing in that definition requires that hotels accept all comers. Why could you not have specialized hotels that attempted to cater to particular segments of the population and discriminate accordingly? For instance, a hotel which markets itself as a place for single-homosexuals to hook up would have plenty of reasons to exclude fundamentalist Christians which would make their other guests uncomfortable.

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  • edgehopper 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    What Billy Goat said, but presumably the restriction has to be tied to the purpose of the theming and no more restrictive than necessary. For example, Cove Haven resorts in the Poconos, PA, are billed as romantic couples resorts (with a heart-shaped whirlpool tub in every room!) They only allow couples to stay there (no single people), and no kids. They could probably go even further and legally restrict to married couples only, though there are good business reasons they won't. However, they could not legally forbid homosexual couples if PA treated homosexuals as a protected class (too restrictive to fit the theme--I'm not sure if PA has such a lawm though), nor could they forbid evangelical Christians, Mormons, or Orthodox Jews on the grounds that they would make other couples feel uncomfortable (though they could, and probably do, forbid aggressive proselytizing on their property). I would guess that this is a parallel rule to the "Bona Fide Occupational Qualification" rule in employment discrimination, though I don't know what it's called in public accomodations law.

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  • PrometheeFeu 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I don't disagree with anything you said. (Except perhaps for the existence of a "theme" exception which I've never heard of before and would like to see some evidence of.) My point is that I think this is a bad state of affairs and that we should not interfere with a hotel's decision to discriminate against guests based on whatever the ownership and management decides to be appropriate. I would personally not frequent a hotel that discriminates against certain classes of people. But as some examples have shown, this can lead to regulations which violate our sense of common decency. Are we really ready to say that if a Holocaust survivor does not wish to serve NAZIs at his bar, he is in the wrong? Are we ready to say that if a black man refuses to host a white power convention in his hotel, he is in the wrong? (not actual examples, but starker extensions of the actual examples)

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  • Billy Goat 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I think businesses that offer that kind of 'themed' service are allowed to do that (this is why Hooters doesn't have to hire male waiters).

    But I think epluribus' point is that a business is 'open to the public' and therefore a public accommodation if it is not a private club serving only members, but instead holds itself out to the public at large.  A hotel that invited people that were not members or part of their association, people they did not know from Adam, to come and stay is such a place even if it has a sign that says "No services to redheads!"  The law says such a place may not discriminate against certain protected classes.  I think that's a good thing btw. 

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  • David Schwartz 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Right, we agree that's what the law says. But then you can't turn around and argue that ejecting people is a breach of the decision to open the business to all comers. The business is open to all comers because the law requires it not because the owners chose to open it.

    The law requires me to file tax returns if I have sufficient income. If I have that income and fail to file tax returns, I've broken the law. However, it's silliness to argue that by earning income I've agreed to comply with all the laws associated with earning income and therefore I've breached some kind of agreement associated with earning income. This is the type of argument epluribus is trying to make.

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  • Billy Goat 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    You're confusing "open to all comers" and "open to the general public."  The key to the latter is, as I said, it "invited people that were not members or part of their association, people they did not know from Adam, to come and stay is such a place even if it has a sign that says "No services to redheads!""

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  • OrenWithAnE 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Having plenty of reasons to do something is quite distinct from being legally allowed to do it. 

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  • PrometheeFeu 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I was responding to epluribus' characterization of the situation: "a hotel holds itself open to the general public because that is what a hotel does. It is not because the law requires it to do this.". I was simply pointing out that it is wrong to say that hotels are open to all "because that is what a hotel does". The reason why all hotels are open to the general public is because the law says they must and not because of some sort of inherent properties of hotels.

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  • Billy Goat 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    The Dictionary definition of a hotel is as follows:

    ho·tel/hōˈtel/
    Noun:An establishment providing accommodations, meals, and other services for travelers and tourists

    If those 'travelers and tourists' are not members of some association or club of the hotel's, then that is what hotels do, they hold themselves out to 'the general public.'  This doesn't change if they try to bar some subgroup in the public (they would still offer services to strangers [travelers and tourists]).

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  • PrometheeFeu 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    I understood a broader definition of the general public to include "anybody willing to pay the price for a room". Either way, I disagree with you. I do not think it is a good thing for business owners to be required to do business with just anyone. I can sort of see the argument for actual personal characteristics: hair color, skin color, ascendance, etc... But what you say, what religion you practice, and other behaviors you choose to engage in should definitely be fair game for private discrimination. People can go hold their white-power, marxist or anti-gay rally somewhere else.
    Also, I believe you are wrong and that Hooters lost several anti-discrimination court cases brought up my men.

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  • markefield 16 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    As Vance Koven has already pointed out, the old common law rule for innkeepers required them to accept all guests who didn't create a disturbance. That long pre-dated 1964 or even 1764; segregation was an exception to that rule.

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  • EugeneVolokh 5 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    I'm not an expert on the common law of public accommodations, but I wonder whether the rule related to guests at inns -- whether to sleep or to eat -- also extended to an obligation to rent to everyone assembly hall space, something that was traditionally done by places often called "halls" rather than inns.  Do you have any information on that?

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  • markefield 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    At older common law, the rule was limited to travelers. However, other professions were also subject to the rule. From the quote above, you can see that anyone who held himself out as serving the public was subject to it. This would include inns, since they were part and parcel of the lodging offered.

    Later on, according to the article, the reasoning changed. Since at least the 1800s the rule for "hotels" extended to others besides travelers. Again quoting from the Fordham article:

    "In the early days when the duty to serve arose solely from the profession of public service, the right to exclude a non-traveler was apparent, since the innkeeper undertook to serve only the wayfaring class.  His duty was co-extensive with his profession. As the element of public interest became a determinant of the common calling, limitation of the obligation to travelers was justified by the fact that inns are a real necessity only to travelers. There are compelling reasons why the keeper of a hotel should be forced to give lodging and food to a weary traveler, away from home, and in dire need of rest and refreshment, but none why others should be so favored. Today, traveler is not synonymous with journeyer. It is not essential that a person should have come from a distance. So long as one resides away from the inn, whether far or near, and comes to it for transient entertainment, he is a traveler and entitled to accommodations. A neighbor or a townsman has as much right to admission as a foreigner.  The essence of a "traveler" under this rule is that he comes  for transient entertainment. His duty was co-extensive with his profession. As the element of public interest became a determinant of the common calling, limitation of the obligation to travelers was justified by the fact that inns are a real necessity only to travelers. There are compelling reasons why the keeper of a hotel should be forced to give lodging and food to a weary traveler, away from home, and in dire need of rest and refreshment, but none why others should be so favored. Today, traveler is not synonymous with journeyer. It is not essential that a person should have come from a distance. So long as one resides away from the inn, whether far or near, and comes to it for transient entertainment, he...

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    (Edited by author 5 days ago)

  • jmatrixrenegade 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    Interesting article but it uses the word "emanations," so it's open to ridicule.

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  • EugeneVolokh 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    My understanding was that the rule was limited to innkeepers, and definitely didn't include other professions.  There was a similar rule applicable to common carriers engaged in transportation, such as trains.  But as best I can tell, that was it, and I've seen no evidence that it extended to people who rented out meeting halls.  Can you point me to any contrary evidence?

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  • markefield 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    Sure. See Fairness and Justice by Charles Haar and Daniel Fessler. The rule applied to many businesses: inns, taverns, trains, mills, taxis, turnpikes, bakeries, etc.

    I've never looked for a case involving meeting halls per se. At any given level of specificity, of course, precedent is less likely to exist.

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  • David Schwartz 10 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    This rule is a due to special historical circumstances. In the past, it was not possible to make advance arrangements for lodging due to the lack of communication. And you couldn't just travel on to the next inn because travel at night or in inclement weather was hazardous. This was more a safety rule and a way to prevent gouging than anything else.

    In any event, it's an argument specific to inns and hotels and, so far as I know, no modern distinction is drawn between overnight accommodations other other public accommodations. So while true, this is irrelevant for several distinct reasons.

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  • markefield 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Special historical circumstances that lasted for 1000 years. Ok.

    In any case, it's not irrelevant. The Unruh Act simply codifies the practice of time immemorial and prevents bigots from granting themselves an exception to it. The owner knew when she opened the hotel that this was the law, so it makes perfect sense to hold her to the law's terms, just as we do in every such case.

    FWIW, there's a discussion of this duty at http://ir.lawnet.fordham.edu/c...

    The key language is this: "The explanation finding most support is that the legal duty to serve all was the result of a voluntary assumption of the public service obligation.8
    One who entered an occupation and professed to serve people indiscriminately, held himself out as ready to accommodate all, and came under judicial compulsion
    to abide by his undertaking. As soon as a man dedicated his business to the service of the public, he waived his privilege of discrimination."

    Footnote 8 to this passage reads: "Anonymous, 2 Rolle 345, 81 Eng. Reprints 842 (K. B. 1623) (action for refusal to
    serve lies against innkeeper "because he hath subjected himself to keep a common Inn."); 2 KENT'S COMM. (10th ed. 1860) *599; Burdick, Origin of the Peculiar Duties of Public
    Service Companies (1911) 11 CoL.. L. R1v. 514, 515, 516; Adler, Business Jurisprudence (1914) 28 HARv. L. REv. 135, 151-4. "Also, if an innkeeper . . . hangs out a sign and
    opens his house for travelers, it is an implied engagement to entertain all persons who travel that way; and upon this universal assumpsit an action . . . will lie against him
    ... if he without good reason refuses to admit a traveler." 3 Br,. CoaI~M. *164.

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    (Edited by author 6 days ago)

  • David M. Nieporent 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    The issue is not whether we should hold the hotel owner to the law, but whether the law should exist.  The Unruh Act does not "codify the practice of time immemorial."  (Even were that a relevant consideration.)  The "practice of time immemorial" was a very narrow exception to the general rule for specific subclasses of businesses.  The Unruh Act (even more than its federal or state analogs) applies broadly to everyone, whether or not they "hold themselves out as serving the public."

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  • markefield 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    The rule of common law would apply in this case regardless, as my response to Prof. Volokh shows.

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  • epluribus 6 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Your defense of the right to discriminate is sad.  The Unruh Act requires that accommodations be available regardless of race, religion, gender, etc.  That is good.  That is moral.  That is conducive to fairness in a society that values fairness and equal treatment.  It should be defended not attacked.  There was a time within the lifetimes of people still living today when Jews and Blacks were routinely trurned away from public accommodations.  Thanks to Jessee Unruh and others like him this is no longer the case.

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  • David Schwartz 2 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    What's the point of having rights if you can only use them to do what other people think you should do?

    Update: "What's the good of equal rights if you can't get a public business to serve you unless you do what they think you should do?" I'm perfectly happy to accept that a discriminating restaurant owner may refuse to serve me. I wouldn't want to do business with him anyway. And I sure as hell wouldn't trade away the right to refuse to allow racists in my restaurant for the "right" to compel racists to do business with me. Freedom is as good as racism is bad. And this is a trade we don't even need to make.

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    (Edited by author 4 days ago)

  • markefield 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    Good point. What's the good of equal rights if you can't get a public business to serve you unless you do what they think you should do?

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  • David M. Nieporent 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    Your defense of the right to impose on other people is sad.  The Unruh Act says that private property isn't really private at all.  That is bad.  It is immoral.  The government, of course, should treat people fairly and equally; it should not try to compel anyone else to do so.  It should indeed be attacked.  The Thirteenth Amendment says that involuntary servitude is forbidden.  Jesse Unruh should not have been allowed to violate that.

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  • CJColucci 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

       Where do people get the idea that they have a general right, baked into the cake of the universe, as it were, to do business on any damn terms they please, and only with such people as they choose? It doesn't come from history. Many types of businesses have been held in the past to be subject to the implied obligation to sell their goods or services to anyone who seeks them, save upon terms relating to such things as solvency, behavior, hygiene, and the like that society is prepared to reognize as reasonable. 
       True, we don't make this the default rule for all sorts of businesses, and most people in business are out, quite properly, to make a buck, and don't decline customers for reasons society would not be prepared to recognize as reasonable. So it just isn't important enough to justify ginning up the public force if, say, some quirky milliner doesn't want to sell hats to libertarians. (Being able to get a room for the night, or a meal, is another matter.) Therefore, it's accurate enough as a practical rule of thumb to go through life thinking you have a right to refuse service to anyone unless some specific law says otherwise, but you shouldn't be surprised if new restrictions pop up as what society is prepared to regard as both reasonable and important change.

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  • markefield 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    No, what's immoral is discriminating against people. Private property exists solely because the state protects it. It can condition that protection on compliance with social standards such as equality.

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  • Vance_Koven 5 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    As you say, the jury apparently believed the plaintiffs' testimony that the owner ejected the group because they were Jewish, not because of the contents of their speech. Under anybody's anti-discrimination law, that should suffice.

    However, you go on to say (well, actually you said it above that bit) that it's debatable whether property owners should be free to keep people off their property on account of race, religion, etc., which is the debate from 1964; most folks have sort of gotten past that by now when it comes to property used to conduct an open-to-the-public business. However, a complicating factor, even assuming what you say about most property owners is correct, is that innkeepers are subject to ancient rules requiring them to accept, up to capacity, all guests who are not misbehaving. The "public accommodations" aspects of anti-discrimination law are really just extensions of that principle.

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  • DavidBernstein 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

     No, this has nothing to do with 1964.  Federal law bans discrimination in public accommodations based on particular characteristics; it doesn't require require public accommodations to be open to everyone and anyone, nor specifically does it require public accommodations to permit individuals or groups to use their property for particular ideological purposes that the owner of the property is opposed to.  As I note in my You Can't Say That! book, the drafters of the '64 Civil Rights Act were cognizant of civil libertarian concerns regarding getting government too involved in dictating property usage, and thus drafted a relatively narrow law compared, e.g., to the way the Unruh Act has been interpreted. 

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  • James A. Butts 3 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    This is America, not Feudal Europe.  As has been recognized since the Company town cases, it is a threat to democracy to allow the classes that own the public accommodations infrastructure to censor messages based on viewpoint.  California has the right to prevent business owners from abusing their property to undermine our democracy.

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  • David Schwartz 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    So, could a Holocaust survivor who owns a one-man printing shop that holds its services available to the public be justly compelled to typeset and print a "Hitler was right!" sign? Maybe he could be compelled to write some copy too, if that's a service he normally provides. I honestly cannot conceive of any rational man thinking that giving bigots the right to compel him to serve them in exchange for the right to compel bigots to do business with him is a sensible trade.

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  • CJColucci 1 comment collapsed Collapse Expand

    What federal law has to say is beside the point. At common law, innkeepers had a variety of obligations inconsistent with the notion that they could refuse their services whenever they chose. States are free to take the common law rule seriously, and even to expand on it. I know some folks don't like that, and value the right of a businessman to refuse to sell his goods or services for whatever damned reason he wants over the right of customers to do business on businesslike terms, but they've lost that fight. And a damned good thing, too.

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  • Billy Goat 4 comments collapsed Collapse Expand

    It's a reasonable idea to allow discrimination against a person's ideas, but I wonder how that would interact with traditional anti-discrimination protections of religion.  Could someone bar all events with a Catholic (or pro-Catholic) message and not be discriminating against Catholics (if the service included providing venues for events)?

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